Enter your email address:

Delivered by FeedBurner

Bookmark and Share

« Influential Books and Authors: Christopher J.H. Wright on Chambers, Hercus and more | Main | New Testament Manuscripts: The Beat Goes On by Daniel B. Wallace »

TrackBack

TrackBack URL for this entry:
http://www.typepad.com/services/trackback/6a00e54fc7cbdb88340115718635a5970b

Listed below are links to weblogs that reference How Rude was Jesus? (Monday with Mounce 40):

Comments

Oh no, an English grammatical blunder of epic proportions: That must of stung a little. I twinged a little bit to see that on a day when grammar is mentioned. ;-)

I saw that too. But maybe it will be the new construct, much like how my generation says 'all of a sudden', whereas the younger generation says 'all the sudden'.

I wonder what Jesus actually said to Mary in Aramaic. The Greek gives us clues to that; but essentially what we have in the Greek is John's view of Jesus relationship to Mary, not Jesus view.

The best explanation I've seen for this idiom is from the NET Bible's notes: "The phrase τί ἐμοὶ καὶ σοί, γύναι (ti emoi kai soi, gunai) is Semitic in origin. The equivalent Hebrew expression in the Old Testament had two basic meanings: (1) When one person was unjustly bothering another, the injured party could say “What to me and to you?” meaning, “What have I done to you that you should do this to me?” (Judg 11:12, 2 Chr 35:21, 1 Kgs 17:18). (2) When someone was asked to get involved in a matter he felt was no business of his, he could say to the one asking him, “What to me and to you?” meaning, “That is your business, how am I involved?” (2 Kgs 3:13, Hos 14:8). Option (1) implies hostility, while option (2) implies merely disengagement. Mere disengagement is almost certainly to be understood here as better fitting the context (although some of the Greek Fathers took the remark as a rebuke to Mary, such a rebuke is unlikely)."

The comments to this entry are closed.

About

Categories

Koinoniablog.net Analytics

  • :