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I am very curious. What is the real meaning of Jude 23?

That sounds like it was a good paper. I agree that it is very important to recognize there is a time and a place for each translation theory. One thing I have been wondering though. I have thought of the literal translations as useful for doing in-depth Bible studies when the languages are unavailable. Let's say there is an average church-going guy named Joachim. Joachim is intelligent and wants to dig deep into scripture, but he doesn't know the languages. He is told that a literal translation will allow him to make his own decisions on interpretative issues. Can he make his own interpretative decisions without knowing what possibilities are really there? He sees the English word "of," but he doesn't know the range of possible meanings for the Greek genitive. Is he able to make a good decision? Should a literal translation be used this way, at least for private study? (I can see this possible in a group setting with someone guiding the possible translations) If so, how should Joachim go about understanding the possibilities so he can remain faithful to the text? If not, how should literal translations be used? (Perhaps there are similar questions that can be raised about dynamic translations, but I hear more about using literal translations)

Kyle,

If I may be of help. Here is the Greek: οὓς δὲ σῴζετε ἐκ πυρὸς ἁρπάζοντες, οὓς δὲ ἐλεᾶτε ἐν φόβῳ μισοῦντες καὶ τὸν ἀπὸ τῆς σαρκὸς ἐσπιλωμένον χιτῶνα. Here is my translation: "And some save, snatching (them) from the fire, and to some have mercy with fear, hating even the garment defiled by the flesh." A χιτών is a garment worn under one's cloak; thus, it is the equivalent of underwear. The participle ἐσπιλωμένον can be translated defiled, stained, polluted, etc. So, in other words it means "hating the underwear stained by bodily functions."

IMHO, there is no substitute for the original language. Knowing the range of the genitive or the functions of a participle is invaluable to exegesis. But, my NT professor believes that solid exegesis can be done from a competent student. I think he may be correct. Like Fee and Stuart he suggests in his Hermeneutics Class to read one's pericope in three translations: a literal translation, a dynamic translation, and a paraphrase translation.
In regard to syntax, a lot of the ranges of nouns are self-evident. It doesn't take Greek to realize if "of" is being used in regards to possession, description, relation, material, etc. The verbs and participles, of course, are not so easily classified.
Armed with a good mind, three translations, access to resources, and some patience Joachim should be able to exegete well.

I hope I was of some help,
-A.M. Johnson

“Jesus said ‘brother,’ not ‘brother and sister.’” Actually, he never said “brother”; he said αδελφος.

I don't mean to sound disrespectful, because of course I know you don't mean this literally. Jesus, of course, spoke Aramaic, not (so far as we can determine) Greek.

But we haven't been given the New Testament in Aramaic, have we?

Though I'm no expert on the issue relating to how the different spoken languages in Palestine worked in those days, I'm pretty sure Hebrew (see Luke 4:17), Aramaic, and Greek were all known to Jesus. I would find it hard to believe He never had occasion to use Greek, particularly in handling the centurion. A straight reading of the text would imply that He turned and said "truly I tell you, not even in Israel have I found such belief!" in the same language He used to converse with the centurion. Of course, Matthew & co. may have simply trimmed that irrelevant detail by not telling us that Jesus switched back and forth there. The centurion would not have received honor from the compliment if it was offered in a language He didn't know (and I will guess that centurions often did not know Aramaic -- but that's a guess).

Plus there's the question of Jesus (apparently) quoting the Septuagint for, say, the Ten Commandments. "Thou shalt not covet desire." Hmm...

But in any case, whether Jesus said adelphos or ach, Mounce's point still stands.

And as to Jude 23: One could also interpret it as "have mercy on some, with fear hating even the underwear spoiled by bodily functions." My point here is: does "with fear" refer to having mercy, or does it modify "hating?" I think "fearfully hating" [= loathing] would be more natural.

I'm sure you didn't mean it that way, Dr. Mounce, but I find it interesting that immediately preceding your point about no "unwholesome words" in debates, you essentially argued that the TNIV's place is in VBS's.. that is, for children.

Will your full paper be available online anytime soon?

Lots of great comments. Thanks. The explanation above about Jude is accurate. It is very strong and graphical language.

As far as the language Jesus spoke, I accept the position that almost everyone in Israel would have spoken Aramaic and Greek. Most of our current world is bilingual, so it is not hard to see Palestine as a place of a mother tongue (Aramaic) and the formal language of politics and commerce (Greek).

And no, I don't think the TNIV is only for children. I actually thought about this possible misunderstanding when I phrased the question. What I meant was that in my situation, VBS was a perfect use for the TNIV. I can think of many other uses for it. Don Carson told me about how he often goes into a university to debate with non-believers, and in that context the ESV would never be read because of the gender language. Another good place for the TNIV.

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